Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the heart beats too fast, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Arrhythmia
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, which can decrease the heart's efficiency in pumping blood. Bradycardia, on the other hand, refers to a slow heart rate, which is the opposite of what is described in the question. Arrhythmia is a general term for any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, not necessarily specifically related to a fast heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart's lower chambers quiver instead of pumping blood effectively, but it is not specifically characterized by a fast heart rate.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

3. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Stroke
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.

4. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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