the client on warfarin has an inr of 38 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

3. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

4. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.

5. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

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The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

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