the client on warfarin has an inr of 38 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

2. Which of the following is a central vasodilator and peripheral vasoconstrictor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the fight-or-flight response. It causes vasodilation in central vessels to increase blood flow to vital organs during stress or exercise, while inducing vasoconstriction in peripheral vessels to redirect blood to essential areas. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, respectively, but they are not themselves central vasodilators and peripheral vasoconstrictors.

3. What is a chronic condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is persistently elevated, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a chronic condition characterized by persistently elevated pressure in the arteries. This condition increases the risk of heart disease, stroke, and other health issues. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure and is not the correct answer. Hyperlipidemia (choice C) is high levels of fats in the blood, not related to blood pressure. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is high blood sugar levels, not directly related to elevated blood pressure.

4. This is a chronic condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle that can lead to heart failure but is not the specific term for the condition described. Choices C and D, Myocarditis and Pericarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the heart muscle or the lining around the heart, which can cause heart failure as a complication but are not the primary condition described in the question.

5. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.

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