ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.
2. What is a condition where the pulmonary arteries become blocked by a blood clot, leading to chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms?
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Pneumothorax
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a condition where a blood clot blocks one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, resulting in symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and other related signs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pneumothorax refers to a collapsed lung, pulmonary edema is the build-up of fluid in the lungs, and pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs - none of which directly involve a blood clot blocking the pulmonary arteries.
3. Which type of heart disease involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to relax and fill with blood?
- A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- D. Ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, restrictive cardiomyopathy. This condition specifically involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to relax and fill with blood between beats. Choice B, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, not stiffening. Choice C, dilated cardiomyopathy, involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers, not stiffening. Choice D, ventricular hypertrophy, refers to the thickening of the walls of the heart's pumping chambers but does not specifically involve the stiffening that is characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy.
4. What is a condition where the airways become swollen and produce extra mucus, making it difficult to breathe, often associated with COPD?
- A. Chronic bronchitis
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Emphysema
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is a long-term inflammation of the bronchi, leading to persistent cough and mucus production, commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia (Choice B) is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. Emphysema (Choice C) is a lung condition where the air sacs in the lungs are damaged, making it difficult to breathe. Tuberculosis (Choice D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.
5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?
- A. Severe headache
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Seizures
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.
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