this is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. What is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This increased pressure can lead to serious health issues such as heart disease and stroke. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure, which is not the correct term in this context. Diabetes (choice C) and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are also serious conditions but are not specifically characterized by consistently high blood pressure.

2. When administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client, which lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering furosemide (Lasix), it is crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with low potassium, such as cardiac arrhythmias. While monitoring sodium, calcium, and chloride levels may also be important in certain situations, potassium is the most critical to monitor when administering furosemide.

3. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.

4. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.

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