this is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. What is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This increased pressure can lead to serious health issues such as heart disease and stroke. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure, which is not the correct term in this context. Diabetes (choice C) and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are also serious conditions but are not specifically characterized by consistently high blood pressure.

2. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

3. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

4. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

5. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

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