the nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 50 bpm what is the priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 50 bpm. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 50 bpm is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects like bradycardia or heart block. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the low heart rate. Decreasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) may not be sufficient to address the potential harm. Monitoring the client’s heart rate and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) may delay necessary interventions if the heart rate drops further. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

2. What is the term for inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often leading to a persistent cough and mucus production?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bronchitis.' Bronchitis refers to the inflammation of the bronchial tubes, which can be acute or chronic, leading to symptoms like coughing and increased mucus production. Choice B, 'Asthma,' is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, often causing wheezing and shortness of breath. Choice C, 'Pneumonia,' is an infection that inflames air sacs in one or both lungs, leading to symptoms like fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Choice D, 'Cystic fibrosis,' is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, causing mucus buildup and respiratory issues.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.

4. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

5. Which type of heart disease involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to relax and fill with blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, restrictive cardiomyopathy. This condition specifically involves the stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to relax and fill with blood between beats. Choice B, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, not stiffening. Choice C, dilated cardiomyopathy, involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers, not stiffening. Choice D, ventricular hypertrophy, refers to the thickening of the walls of the heart's pumping chambers but does not specifically involve the stiffening that is characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy.

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