Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. Which type of medication is used to reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure?

• A. Beta-blocker
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Calcium channel blocker
• D. Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Beta-blocker. Beta-blockers are medications that reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions such as hypertension and heart failure. ACE inhibitors (B) work by dilating blood vessels to reduce blood pressure, calcium channel blockers (C) prevent calcium from entering the heart muscle and blood vessel walls, and diuretics (D) help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production.

4. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

5. Which term refers to the relaxation phase of the heart, during which the chambers fill with blood?

• A. Diastole
• B. Systole
• C. Refractoriness
• D. Automaticity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Diastole. Diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. Choice B, Systole, is incorrect as systole is the contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the chambers. Choice C, Refractoriness, refers to a period during which the heart muscle is unresponsive to stimuli. Choice D, Automaticity, relates to the heart's ability to generate its own electrical impulses.

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