Nursing Elites

1. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Headache
• B. Flushing
• C. Dizziness
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

2. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Aneurysm
• C. Stroke
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

3. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

4. Which procedure is used to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space, helping to relieve pressure on the lungs?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a procedure specifically designed to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space in the chest. This process helps to relieve pressure on the lungs and improve breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not to remove fluid from the pleural space. Chest X-ray (Choice C) is an imaging test that provides a picture of the structures inside the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) test (Choice D) is a blood test that measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing information about how well the lungs are working, but it does not involve removing excess fluid or air from the pleural space.

5. The client on enoxaparin (Lovenox) is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the enoxaparin as scheduled.
• C. Administer vitamin K before the surgery.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR and proceed with surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider. Enoxaparin, being an anticoagulant, should be held before surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. It is crucial to inform the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering enoxaparin before surgery can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not typically indicated in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring the client's INR and proceeding with surgery without addressing the enoxaparin can lead to significant bleeding complications.

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