the client is on a nitrate for angina what is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

2. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

4. Which of the following is a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Epinephrine. Epinephrine acts as a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator. It increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles, helping to prepare the body for a 'fight or flight' response. Parasympathetic nervous system (choice A) does not cause vasoconstriction but rather vasodilation. The sympathetic nervous system (choice B) is primarily responsible for the fight or flight response, causing vasoconstriction. Dopamine (choice C) primarily acts as a neurotransmitter and hormone, not directly causing central vasoconstriction and peripheral vasodilation.

5. What is a condition where the heart muscle becomes thickened without an obvious cause, leading to a reduction in the heart's ability to pump blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the abnormal thickening of the heart muscle without an obvious cause, which impairs the heart's ability to effectively pump blood. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers, not thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) refers to the stiffening of the heart muscle, limiting its ability to fill properly. Myocarditis (choice D) is inflammation of the heart muscle usually caused by a viral infection, not thickening.

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