the client is on a nitrate for angina what is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.

3. The client is prescribed warfarin. What should the client be taught about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and vitamin K can counteract its effects. Therefore, it is important for clients taking warfarin to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin should be taken consistently as prescribed, regardless of food intake. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is important, it is not specific to the effectiveness of warfarin. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never increase the dose of warfarin on their own, especially to make up for a missed dose, as it can lead to serious bleeding risks.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. What is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This increased pressure can lead to serious health issues such as heart disease and stroke. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure, which is not the correct term in this context. Diabetes (choice C) and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are also serious conditions but are not specifically characterized by consistently high blood pressure.

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