a client with major depressive disorder is receiving electroconvulsive therapy ect which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse after
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

3. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't a healthcare professional expect to assess in a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include excessive worry, muscle tension, restlessness, and irritability. Increased energy is not typically associated with GAD; instead, clients often experience fatigue due to the persistent anxiety and worry that characterize the disorder.

4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, interventions should focus on providing a structured environment, encouraging rest periods, and setting limits on inappropriate behaviors. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania, such as increased energy, impulsivity, and risk-taking behaviors. Therefore, it is important to avoid encouraging such activities to prevent worsening of manic symptoms.

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