a client with major depressive disorder is receiving electroconvulsive therapy ect which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse after
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

3. What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

4. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary advice should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake. Fluctuations in salt intake can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity or reduced effectiveness of the medication. It is crucial for patients to adhere to a stable salt intake while taking lithium to ensure optimal treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in tyramine is more relevant for patients on MAOIs, not lithium. Increasing protein intake or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific dietary recommendations for patients taking lithium.

5. Which of the following is an uncommon symptom of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Fatigue is not typically considered a direct symptom of schizophrenia. It is important to focus on symptoms directly related to the disorder when identifying schizophrenia.

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