ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
- C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
- D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.
2. A healthcare professional is teaching a patient about relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which technique is the healthcare professional most likely to recommend?
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Physical exercise
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Journaling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are a widely recommended technique for managing anxiety and promoting relaxation. By focusing on deep, slow breaths, individuals can activate the body's relaxation response, leading to decreased anxiety levels and an overall sense of calm. This technique is easy to learn, can be practiced anywhere, and is often suggested by healthcare professionals as a first-line approach for anxiety management. Physical exercise, mindfulness meditation, and journaling are also beneficial for mental well-being but may not be the first choice when specifically targeting acute anxiety management.
3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. I need to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- D. This medication may cause weight gain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Risperidone should be taken consistently as prescribed and should not be stopped abruptly. It is essential to educate the client that discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to a worsening of symptoms or potential relapse. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of important considerations when taking risperidone, such as avoiding alcohol, taking it with food to reduce stomach upset, and being aware of the potential side effect of weight gain. Choice A suggests a misconception that the medication can be discontinued once the client feels better, which is incorrect and requires further clarification to ensure treatment adherence and effectiveness.
4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
- A. Encourage the client to discuss the voices.
- B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
- C. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
- D. Distract the client from the voices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations, providing reality-based feedback is a therapeutic intervention. This helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, aiding in reducing the impact of hallucinations. Encouraging the client to discuss the voices may validate the hallucinations, telling the client that the voices are not real dismisses their experience, and distracting the client may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations.
5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
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