Nursing Elites

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Weight gain
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

3. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

4. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should the instructor include in the teaching? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than a specific relaxation technique. Therefore, cognitive restructuring does not fall under the category of relaxation techniques and is not typically used to manage anxiety.

5. You have been working closely with a patient for the past month. Today he tells you he is looking forward to meeting with his new psychiatrist but frowns and avoids eye contact while reporting this to you. Which of the following responses would most likely be therapeutic?

• A. A new psychiatrist is a chance to start fresh; I'm sure it will go well for you.
• B. You say you look forward to the meeting, but you appear anxious or unhappy.
• C. I notice that you frowned and avoided eye contact just now. Don't you feel well?
• D. I get the impression you don't really want to see your psychiatrist—can you tell me why?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the discrepancy between the patient's verbal statement and nonverbal cues. By addressing both the patient's expressed anticipation and the conflicting nonverbal cues of frowning and avoiding eye contact, the responder demonstrates attentiveness to the patient's emotional state and encourages further exploration of underlying feelings. This approach fosters open communication and helps the patient feel understood and supported.

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