Nursing Elites

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. A client has been diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Attention-seeking behavior
• B. Dramatic expressions of emotion
• C. Seductive behavior
• D. Dependency on others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with histrionic personality disorder often display attention-seeking behaviors as a way to draw focus and validation from others. This behavior may manifest as exaggerated emotions and dramatic expressions to maintain the spotlight. While seductive behavior and dependency on others are potential characteristics of histrionic personality disorder, attention-seeking behavior is the hallmark trait. Therefore, the correct answer is attention-seeking behavior (Choice A). Dramatic expressions of emotion (Choice B) can be a feature of histrionic personality disorder, but it is not as characteristic as attention-seeking behavior. Seductive behavior (Choice C) may also be present in individuals with histrionic personality disorder, but it is not the primary behavior to expect. Dependency on others (Choice D) is not a core feature of histrionic personality disorder, although individuals with this disorder may seek attention and validation from others.

3. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

4. Which of the following symptoms should a healthcare provider expect to assess in a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Excessive worry
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Increased energy
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder include excessive worry, muscle tension, restlessness, and irritability. Increased energy is not typically associated with GAD; clients often experience fatigue instead. This heightened energy level is more commonly seen in conditions like mania or hypomania, rather than in GAD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased energy.' Choices A, B, and D are all symptoms commonly observed in individuals with generalized anxiety disorder.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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