ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
- C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
- D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.
2. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare professional can use when interacting with clients?
- A. Using silence
- B. Discouraging the client from washing their hands
- C. Giving advice
- D. Providing reassurance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to establish a trusting and supportive relationship between the healthcare professional and the client. Using silence is a valid therapeutic technique that allows the client to reflect and express their thoughts. On the other hand, discouraging the client from washing their hands goes against good hygiene practices and is not therapeutic. Giving advice and providing reassurance can be non-therapeutic if not used appropriately, as they may undermine the client's autonomy and problem-solving abilities.
3. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
- B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
- C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
- D. Medication adherence will be mandated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.
4. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for the treatment of depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) because alcohol can increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication in the treatment of depression. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine (Prozac) is usually taken in the morning to prevent insomnia. Choice C is not a crucial instruction for this medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
5. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
- D. Administer a prescribed sedative.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.
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