a client with major depressive disorder is receiving electroconvulsive therapy ect which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse after
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. Which of the following is not a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of SSRIs include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs; instead, weight gain is more frequently observed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client's use of defense mechanisms. Which statement would indicate to the healthcare professional that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or impulses onto others. In this case, the client is projecting his own feelings of hostility onto others by assuming they possess these feelings instead.

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