Nursing Elites

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Sexual dysfunction
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a commonly reported side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs can affect sexual function by causing issues such as decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, erectile dysfunction, or anorgasmia. Patients should be educated about these potential side effects when starting SSRIs to facilitate informed decision-making and appropriate management strategies. Incorrect Choices: A) Hypotension is not a common side effect of SSRIs. C) Increased appetite is not a common side effect of SSRIs. D) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of SSRIs.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a depressive episode, the nurse should implement interventions that promote mental well-being. Encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation are all essential components of care. Discouraging verbalization of feelings is counterproductive as it hinders the therapeutic process and communication, which are crucial for the client's emotional expression and recovery.

4. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?

• A. I have been on this antidepressant for 3 days. I understand that the full effect may take weeks to occur.
• B. I am going to ask my nurse practitioner to discontinue my Prozac today and let me start taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.
• C. I may ask to have my medication changed to Wellbutrin due to the problems I am having being romantic with my wife.
• D. I realize that there are many antidepressants and it might take a while until we find the one that works best for me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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