a client with major depressive disorder is receiving electroconvulsive therapy ect which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse after
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

2. A client has been diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with paranoid personality disorder commonly display a pervasive distrust of others. They often interpret benign actions of others as hostile or malicious, leading to suspicion and a belief that others have malevolent intentions. While choices B, C, and D may be present in individuals with different personality disorders or issues, distrust of others is a hallmark feature of paranoid personality disorder, making it the correct behavior to expect in these clients.

3. A teenage boy is attracted to a female teacher. Without objective evidence, a school nurse overhears the boy state, 'I know she wants me.' This statement reflects which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. The nurse should determine that the client's statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. By projecting these feelings onto someone else, the individual reduces their own anxiety. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to another, not attributing them to another person. Rationalization involves making excuses to justify behavior, not attributing feelings to others. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable drives or impulses into more constructive and acceptable activities, not attributing feelings to another person.

4. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

5. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.

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