ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?
- A. Unusual responses to sensory input
- B. Social isolation
- C. Repetitive behaviors
- D. Delayed motor development
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.
2. The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?
- A. Feed the infant with a newborn nipple while holding him in the recumbent position
- B. Clean the suture site with a cotton-tipped swab soaked in Betadine
- C. Place the infant in the prone position after feeding
- D. Feed the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe and burp frequently
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not recommended for wound care near the mouth due to its potential toxicity if ingested. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can increase the risk of regurgitation and aspiration.
3. Which dietary modification is most suitable for a client with type 2 diabetes who wants to improve glycemic control?
- A. Increase intake of saturated fats
- B. Decrease intake of refined carbohydrates
- C. Completely avoid all fruits
- D. Increase intake of sugary snacks
Correct answer: Decrease intake of refined carbohydrates
Rationale: Decreasing the intake of refined carbohydrates is the most effective dietary modification for a client with type 2 diabetes who aims to improve their glycemic control. Refined carbohydrates can cause sudden spikes in blood sugar levels, making diabetes management more difficult. Increasing the intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is not advisable as it can negatively impact heart health. Completely avoiding all fruits (Choice C) is unnecessary because most fruits have a low glycemic index and provide essential nutrients. Increasing the intake of sugary snacks (Choice D) will deteriorate glycemic control due to their high sugar content.
4. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
- A. Left atrium
- B. Right atrium
- C. Left ventricle
- D. Right ventricle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins. This blood is then pumped into the left ventricle before being circulated throughout the body. The right atrium, represented by choice B, actually receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava. Choices C and D, the left ventricle and right ventricle respectively, are chambers involved in pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs, rather than receiving blood from the lungs.
5. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. aPTT
- B. Platelet count
- C. BUN
- D. PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99