Nursing Elites

1. Prior to hydrotherapy treatment for wound debridement following a burn injury, which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Apply topical antimicrobial ointment to the child's wound
• B. Place a mesh gauze dressing over the child's wound
• C. Administer an analgesic to the child
• D. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy for the child

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prior to hydrotherapy for wound debridement, it is crucial to administer an analgesic to the preschooler. The procedure is known to be extremely painful, and providing analgesia or sedation is essential to manage the discomfort and pain experienced by the child during the treatment. Choice A is incorrect because applying topical antimicrobial ointment is not a pre-procedural requirement but rather a post-procedure wound care step. Choice B is incorrect as placing a mesh gauze dressing does not address the pain management aspect. Choice D is also incorrect as prophylactic antibiotic therapy is not the primary intervention needed before hydrotherapy for wound debridement.

2. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch’s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

3. A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect?

• A. Skin flushing
• B. Wheezing
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adverse Effect of Histamine – First Generation H1 blockers include dry mouth.

4. A child is being cared for following a head injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the child is developing diabetes insipidus?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.045
• B. Sodium level of 155
• C. Blood glucose level of 45
• D. Urine output of 35 ml per hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a head injury, the development of diabetes insipidus can occur due to pituitary hypofunction, leading to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. An elevated sodium level (hypernatremia) is a key finding in diabetes insipidus due to the excessive loss of free water in the urine, resulting in increased sodium concentration in the blood.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Sunken abdomen
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.

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