Nursing Elites

1. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?

• A. Marasmus
• B. Kwashiorkor
• C. Anemia
• D. Noma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.

2. A client who was normal weight before pregnancy asks about the recommended weight gain during pregnancy. What should the nurse advise?

• A. 18-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 11-20 pounds
• D. 15-25 pounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 25-35 pounds. According to standard prenatal guidelines, a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight is recommended to gain between 25-35 pounds during pregnancy. This weight gain is important for the overall health of the mother and the developing baby. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the recommended weight gain range for a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight.

3. Which consumption pattern of fermentable carbohydrate is considered most cariogenic?

• A. A single exposure to a large quantity
• B. A single exposure to a small quantity
• C. Multiple exposures of small quantities
• D. Multiple exposures followed by chewing sugarless gum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple exposures of small quantities are considered most cariogenic. The total amount of dietary fermentable carbohydrate seems to matter less than the form and frequency in which it is consumed. Having multiple exposures of even small quantities of fermentable carbohydrate throughout the day promotes a highly cariogenic environment in the mouth. Choices A and B, involving single exposures, are less cariogenic as they do not sustain the fermentation process over time. Choice D suggests a beneficial practice by chewing sugarless gum after exposures, which can reduce the risk, making it less cariogenic compared to multiple exposures of small quantities.

4. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

5. What are sheets/forms that provide an efficient and time-saving way to record information that must be obtained repeatedly at regular and/or short intervals of time? This does not replace progress notes; instead, it records information on vital signs, intake and output, treatment, postoperative care, postpartum care, and diabetic regimen, etc. These are used whenever specific measurements or observations need to be documented repeatedly. What is this?

• A. Nursing Kardex
• B. Graphic Flow Sheets
• C. Discharge Summary
• D. Medicine and Treatment Record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Nursing Kardex. Nursing Kardex is a tool used for documenting essential patient information that needs to be recorded repeatedly at regular intervals. It includes vital signs, intake and output, treatment details, postoperative care, postpartum care, and diabetic regimen. This tool is efficient and time-saving for healthcare professionals. Choice B, Graphic Flow Sheets, may be used for visual representation of patient data but is not specifically designed for repeated documentation of essential information. Choice C, Discharge Summary, is a document outlining the patient's care and condition at the time of discharge, not for repeated recording of ongoing data. Choice D, Medicine and Treatment Record, focuses more on specific medications and treatments rather than a comprehensive recording of various patient data needed at regular intervals.

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