Nursing Elites

1. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?

• A. Marasmus
• B. Kwashiorkor
• C. Anemia
• D. Noma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.

2. What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?

• A. surrounding and cushioning the fetus
• B. combining maternal and fetal blood stores to exchange nutrients
• C. producing hormones that maintain the pregnancy
• D. absorbing vitamins and minerals that can be transferred to the fetus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.

3. Dental hygienists are in a key position to assess and detect signs and symptoms of systemic disease because more than one third of the patients treated in a dental office frequently do not interact with a general health care provider.

• A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
• B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related
• C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
• D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dental hygienists often see patients more regularly than general healthcare providers, allowing them to identify systemic issues early.

4. The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. "I notice when I take a vitamin E supplement, I bruise more easily."
• B. "I work nights and rarely go outside during the day."
• C. "I take warfarin, so I need to limit the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat."
• D. "My vitamin supplement has the recommended daily allowance of vitamin A."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports muscle spasms in his calves and tingling in his hands. The client indicates consuming a low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables. The nurse should identify that the client's findings indicate a deficiency in which of the following sources of nutrition?

• A. Iron
• B. Omega-3 fatty acids
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Calcium. Muscle spasms and tingling suggest a calcium deficiency, which is commonly associated with a low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables. Iron (choice A) deficiency typically presents with fatigue and weakness, not muscle spasms and tingling. Omega-3 fatty acids (choice B) are essential for brain function and heart health, but their deficiency does not manifest as muscle spasms and tingling. Vitamin C (choice C) deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums and bruising, not muscle spasms and tingling.

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