the nurse writes a problem of potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation for a client who is taking clomiphene clomid an ovarian s
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.

2. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis as it helps prevent hemolysis and improve anemia. Removing the spleen reduces the destruction of the abnormal red blood cells. Choice A, Bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice C, Frequent blood transfusions, may be used to manage anemia in some cases but is not the primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice D, Liver biopsy, is not a treatment for hereditary spherocytosis; it is a procedure used to diagnose liver conditions, not related to this hematologic disorder.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.

5. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

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