Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?

• A. Ensure the scene is safe, assess responsiveness, call for help, begin CPR with compressions, airway, and breathing
• B. Give two (2) rescue breaths
• C. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
• D. Begin chest compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.

2. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

3. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.

4. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.

5. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
• B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
• C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
• D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

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