ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?
- A. Ensure the scene is safe, assess responsiveness, call for help, begin CPR with compressions, airway, and breathing
- B. Give two (2) rescue breaths
- C. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
- D. Begin chest compressions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.
2. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?
- A. Keep hand receipts up to date
- B. Establish requirements
- C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
- D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish requirements. In the procurement process, the initial step involves determining and establishing the requirements for the supplies and equipment needed. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire procurement process by outlining the specific needs and specifications. Choice A, 'Keep hand receipts up to date,' is not the first step but rather a later administrative task. Choice C, 'Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels,' comes after establishing requirements. Choice D, 'Properly receive, inspect, and store required items,' is the final step in the procurement process, focusing on the physical receipt and handling of the procured items.
3. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?
- A. Esophagus
- B. Stomach
- C. Duodenum
- D. Jejunum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
4. A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?
- A. Paracentesis
- B. Chest tube insertion
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. Biopsy of the pancreas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.
5. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer due to its impact on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is more associated with oral and throat cancers, not pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is actually considered a protective factor against pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be a risk factor for other types of cancer but is not strongly linked to pancreatic cancer.
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