Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

3. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

• A. The Army Nurse Course
• B. Out-processing
• C. The next duty assignment
• D. The practical nurse licensure examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course is specifically designed to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This examination is crucial for students to obtain their practical nurse license and start their career as a licensed practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the focus at the end of the course is on preparing students for the licensure examination, not for Army Nurse Course, out-processing, or the next duty assignment.

4. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 'Military appearance/physical condition' typically involves conducting physical training to ensure personnel meet certain physical standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Accountability deals with being answerable for one's actions, personal/professional development focuses on individual growth and advancement, and individual training refers to specific skill development rather than physical training.

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