Nursing Elites

1. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

• A. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
• B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
• C. Assessing the client’s vital signs every 4 hours
• D. Checking the client’s lungs for crackles during every shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can indicate fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (choice A) is important but may not reflect total body fluid status accurately. Assessing vital signs (choice C) and checking the client's lungs for crackles (choice D) are important assessments but do not directly provide the most accurate monitoring of fluid status.

2. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

• A. The Army Nurse Course
• B. Out-processing
• C. The next duty assignment
• D. The practical nurse licensure examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course is specifically designed to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This examination is crucial for students to obtain their practical nurse license and start their career as a licensed practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the focus at the end of the course is on preparing students for the licensure examination, not for Army Nurse Course, out-processing, or the next duty assignment.

3. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

5. Which of the following is a potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

• A. Stomach irritation and bleeding
• B. Stomatitis and esophagitis
• C. Impaired folate absorption
• D. Increased potassium excretion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause stomach irritation and bleeding due to their effects on gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (Choice B) are not typically associated with NSAID use. While NSAIDs may affect renal function, leading to fluid retention and edema, they do not directly cause increased potassium excretion (Choice D). Impaired folate absorption (Choice C) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.

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