Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

• A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
• B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
• C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
• D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best direction provided by the nurse. This method involves reaching over to the left side rail with the right hand, pulling the body onto its side, bending the upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and pushing down to elevate the trunk. This approach helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, reducing strain on the back. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that are not suitable for a client recovering from a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion and could potentially cause harm or discomfort.

2. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

4. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '68WM6'. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel responsible for performing nursing care duties at various levels of health care. This choice is correct as it specifically identifies the enlisted personnel role related to nursing care. Choice A (68A30) is incorrect as it does not pertain to nursing care duties. Choice C (Physician assistant) is incorrect as physician assistants are not typically enlisted personnel. Choice D (6.80E+21) is incorrect as it is a numerical value and not a designation for enlisted personnel.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

Similar Questions