which is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is to help them live as normal a life as possible. This involves managing symptoms, preventing crises, and promoting overall well-being. While options A, B, and D are important aspects of care, the ultimate goal is to enhance the client's quality of life and support them in leading a fulfilling and active lifestyle despite their condition.

2. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deep tendon reflexes. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the assessment needed when administering magnesium sulfate in this scenario. Arterial blood gases are not typically assessed specifically for magnesium sulfate administration; skin turgor and capillary refill time are more related to hydration status and perfusion, respectively.

3. Determining whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation involves assessing the appropriateness and effectiveness of care provided to the patient. It helps determine if the care aligns with the patient's current physiological and psychological status. Choice B, Planning, refers to developing a plan of care based on assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, involves carrying out the planned interventions. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data about the patient's condition.

4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

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