Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
• C. Increase your intake of sodium.
• D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and consuming foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Spironolactone with food is not necessary for its effectiveness. Increasing sodium intake is not typically recommended with Spironolactone therapy. While monitoring blood pressure is important, it is not specifically related to the use of Spironolactone.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nephrotoxicity
• B. Hepatotoxicity
• C. Red Man Syndrome
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

4. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who asks about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients with a history of which of the following conditions?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Depression
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a history of asthma because it can cause bronchospasms due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. By blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, propranolol can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially triggering asthma symptoms and exacerbating respiratory issues. Asthma patients should avoid medications like propranolol that can worsen their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as propranolol is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, depression, or migraines. In fact, propranolol is sometimes used in the treatment of migraines and certain types of glaucoma.

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