Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, what is important to monitor for?

• A. Intake and output
• B. Mental status changes
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, monitoring mental status changes is crucial. Serotonin Antagonists can affect neurological function, potentially leading to alterations in mental status. It is essential to assess for any changes in behavior, mood, or cognition to ensure patient safety and prompt intervention if needed.

4. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows heart rate?

• A. Heparin
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Digoxin
• D. Levothyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin is the correct answer. It is a medication known for its positive inotropic effects, which increase cardiac output, and negative chronotropic effects, which slow the heart rate. These effects are achieved by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in myocardial cells. Therefore, Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, where enhancing cardiac output and reducing heart rate are beneficial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Heparin is an anticoagulant, Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety disorders, and Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement drug, none of which have the specified therapeutic effects on cardiac function.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with milk.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.

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