Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the provider include?

• A. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• B. Massage the injection site after administration.
• C. Rotate injection sites between the arms and thighs.
• D. Administer the medication in the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is administered as a subcutaneous injection in the abdomen to prevent bleeding complications. Injecting into the muscle or massaging the site can increase the risk of bleeding. Rotating sites between the arms and thighs is not recommended for Enoxaparin administration due to variations in absorption rates. Therefore, the provider should instruct the client to administer Enoxaparin in the abdomen for optimal effectiveness and safety.

2. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?

• A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
• B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
• C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
• D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.

3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

4. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Angina pectoris
• C. Cerebrovascular accident
• D. Coronary heart disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.

5. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

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