ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
2. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes is being cared for by a nurse. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
- C. Initiate fundal massage
- D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client in active labor with ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This helps monitor the well-being of the fetus during labor and delivery, enabling timely interventions if any fetal distress is detected. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be required in some cases, but it is not the priority in the given scenario. Fundal massage is typically done after delivery to help the uterus contract and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion may be indicated to augment labor, but it is not the initial action needed in this situation.
3. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?
- A. Host
- B. Reservoir
- C. Mode of transmission
- D. Portal of entry
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Fluid retention
- D. Black, tarry stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The provider notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Withhold the next dose
- B. Increase the dosage
- C. Discontinue the medication
- D. Administer the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for maintaining the drug's effectiveness while minimizing toxicity. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to continue administering the medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to maintain the therapeutic effect for the client.
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