Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Eupnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Sterile water
• C. Enclosed hemostat clamps
• D. Indwelling urinary catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

4. A client has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.
• B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes.
• C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area.
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis, also known as diaper rash, is a common condition in babies or clients who wear diapers. The primary intervention for diaper dermatitis is to apply a protective barrier cream, such as zinc oxide ointment, to the irritated area. This helps to protect the skin from irritants and promotes healing. Wiping stool from the skin using baby wipes may further irritate the skin, and talcum powder is no longer recommended due to potential respiratory risks when inhaled. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.

5. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?

• A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
• B. Using a water or air mattress
• C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
• D. Providing meticulous skin care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.

Similar Questions