Nursing Elites

1. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.

2. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.

3. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?

• A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
• B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
• C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
• D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.

4. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?

• A. Sims left lateral
• B. Dorsal Recumbent
• C. Supine
• D. Prone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.

5. A client in labor is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?

• A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr.
• B. Montevideo units constantly at 300 mm Hg.
• C. FHR pattern showing absent variability.
• D. Contractions occurring every 5 minutes and lasting 30 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montevideo units measure the strength and frequency of contractions during labor. A consistent Montevideo units reading of 300 mm Hg or higher is indicative of effective uterine contractions. In this scenario, an increase in the rate of oxytocin infusion may be warranted to further augment contractions and promote progress in labor. The other options, such as low urine output, absent variability in fetal heart rate, and short contractions, do not directly correlate with the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion rate.

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