Nursing Elites

1. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.

2. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

3. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?

• A. Fowler’s position
• B. Side-lying
• C. Supine
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?

• A. Fentanyl
• B. Furosemide
• C. Famotidine
• D. Dexamethasone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.

5. When reviewing the prescriptions for a client with a pneumothorax, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Assess the client's pain.
• B. Obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression.
• C. Administer lorazepam.
• D. Prepare for chest tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression. This intervention helps to relieve the pressure in the pleural space, allowing the lung to re-expand. Prompt decompression is crucial in managing a tension pneumothorax, which can be life-threatening. Assessing pain, administering medication, and preparing for chest tube insertion are important, but they should follow the immediate intervention of decompression in a critical situation like a tension pneumothorax.

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