ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following interventions is considered the most effective form of universal precautions?
- A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
- B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container
- C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
- D. Follow enteric precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective form of universal precautions is to discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container. This practice minimizes the risk of needle-stick injuries, which are a significant concern when dealing with used needles. By safely disposing of uncapped needles, healthcare providers can protect themselves and others from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
2. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
4. A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?
- A. Hip arthroplasty 2 weeks ago
- B. Elevated sedimentation rate
- C. Incident of exercise-induced asthma 1 week ago
- D. Elevated platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.
5. When a family of an accident victim, who has been declared brain-dead, appears open to organ donation, what should the nurse do?
- A. Discourage them from deciding until their grief has eased
- B. Listen to their concerns and answer their questions truthfully
- C. Urge them to immediately sign the consent form
- D. Inform them that the body will not be available for a wake or funeral
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations involving potential organ donation, the nurse's role is to provide support, listen to the family's concerns, and answer their questions truthfully. By doing so, the nurse can help facilitate an informed and respectful decision-making process for the grieving family.
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