ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following interventions is considered the most effective form of universal precautions?
- A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
- B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container
- C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
- D. Follow enteric precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective form of universal precautions is to discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container. This practice minimizes the risk of needle-stick injuries, which are a significant concern when dealing with used needles. By safely disposing of uncapped needles, healthcare providers can protect themselves and others from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
- A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
- B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
- C. The patient should always feed himself
- D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect statement is that 'The patient should always feed himself.' Patients with dysphagia may require assistance with feeding due to difficulty in swallowing safely. It is essential to provide appropriate support and supervision during meal times to prevent complications such as aspiration or inadequate nutrition intake.
3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Impulse control difficulty
- B. Poor judgement
- C. Inability to recognize familiar objects
- D. Loss of depth perception
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who have experienced a left-hemispheric stroke may exhibit symptoms of agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This occurs due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, which is responsible for visual and spatial perception. Impulse control difficulty, poor judgment, and loss of depth perception are not typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes.
5. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access