ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following interventions is considered the most effective form of universal precautions?
- A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
- B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container
- C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
- D. Follow enteric precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective form of universal precautions is to discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container. This practice minimizes the risk of needle-stick injuries, which are a significant concern when dealing with used needles. By safely disposing of uncapped needles, healthcare providers can protect themselves and others from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
3. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
4. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
- A. There are contraindications for this test
- B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
- C. A signed consent is not required
- D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
5. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?
- A. 54
- B. 96
- C. 150
- D. 246
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.
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