ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...
- A. Three times a day orally
- B. Three times a day after meals
- C. Two times a day by mouth
- D. Two times a day before meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.
2. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?
- A. Obtain a chest x-ray
- B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
- C. Place tape around the insertion site
- D. Assess respiratory status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.
3. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?
- A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
- B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
- C. Watch for any changes in vision.
- D. Take vitamin B6 daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.
4. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?
- A. Side rails are ineffective
- B. Side rails should not be used
- C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
- D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.
5. The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler’s position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?
- A. Encourage the patient to increase her fluid intake to 200 ml every 2 hours
- B. Place a humidifier in the patient’s room
- C. Continue administering oxygen by high humidity face mask
- D. Perform chest physiotherapy on a regular schedule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is the most effective intervention in cases of impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. This technique helps mobilize and clear secretions from the airways, thereby improving gas exchange in the lungs. Placing a humidifier or administering oxygen by high humidity face mask may provide moisture but may not directly address the clearance of secretions. Encouraging increased fluid intake can help with hydration but may not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to secretions.
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