Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

2. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...

• A. On the client's skin
• B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
• C. Under the client's tongue
• D. On the client's conjunctiva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

4. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?

• A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
• B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
• C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
• D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.

5. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on performing a routine assessment of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted.
• B. Monitor ventilator settings every 8 hours.
• C. Document tube placement in centimeters at the angle of the jaw.
• D. Assess breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours is crucial in monitoring the client's respiratory status and identifying any potential complications promptly. Monitoring ventilator settings every 8 hours is important for overall ventilation management. Documenting the endotracheal tube placement accurately is essential to ensure proper positioning. Using a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted is not a recommended intervention as it can lead to complications and should be avoided.

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