Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
• B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
• C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

3. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?

• A. Cardiac Board Room
• B. Complete Bathroom
• C. Complete Bed Rest
• D. Complete Board Room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

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