ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
2. The physician orders a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:
- A. Instructing the patient about this diagnostic test
- B. Writing the order for this test
- C. Giving the patient breakfast
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's responsibility in this scenario is to instruct the patient about the diagnostic test ordered by the physician. This includes explaining the purpose of the test, any necessary preparations, and what to expect. The nurse is not responsible for writing the order, as this is the physician's role. Additionally, providing breakfast is not directly related to the platelet count test. Therefore, the correct answer is A, which aligns with the nurse's role in educating and supporting the patient regarding the test.
3. Which natural body defense plays an active role in preventing infection?
- A. Yawning
- B. Body hair
- C. Hiccupping
- D. Rapid eye movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Body hair plays an active role in preventing infection by acting as a filter to block pathogens. It helps to prevent harmful substances from entering the body through the skin, providing a physical barrier against potential infections.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?
- A. Client who has dysphagia
- B. Client who has AIDS
- C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
- D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.
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