ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
2. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?
- A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
- B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
- C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
- D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.
3. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
5. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
- A. There are contraindications for this test
- B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
- C. A signed consent is not required
- D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
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