Nursing Elites

1. The patient is receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding is most likely related to an adverse effect of heparin?

• A. HR of 60 bpm
• B. BP of 160/88
• C. Discolored urine
• D. Inspiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary and most serious adverse effect of heparin is bleeding. However, discolored urine can indicate bleeding into the urinary tract, which is a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy. While changes in heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) can occur due to various reasons, discolored urine specifically points towards a potential adverse effect related to heparin therapy.

2. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?

• A. 30-33 weeks after conception
• B. 34-36 weeks after conception
• C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
• D. 37-40 weeks after conception

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.

3. A parent tells the nurse that her child is scheduled for an x-ray of the bladder and urethra that is done while the child is urinating. What is this test known as?

• A. Cystometrogram
• B. Cystoscopy
• C. Voiding cystourethrogram
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test for an x-ray examination of the bladder and urethra before and during micturition is a voiding cystourethrogram. This procedure allows visualization of the bladder and urethra while the patient is urinating to assess for any abnormalities in the anatomy or function of these structures.

4. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

5. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

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