Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril as part of the treatment plan for heart failure. Which finding indicates the patient is experiencing the therapeutic effect of this drug?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds in 1 week
• B. Potassium level of 3.5mEq/L
• C. Crackles in the lungs are no longer heard
• D. Jugular vein distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, promotes venous dilation, which helps reduce pulmonary congestion and peripheral edema. The absence of previously heard crackles in the lungs indicates effectiveness in reducing pulmonary congestion. Edema and jugular vein distention are signs of heart failure and would not indicate the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril. A potassium level of 3.5mEq/L is within the normal range and not directly related to the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

3. Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?

• A. Unusual responses to sensory input
• B. Social isolation
• C. Repetitive behaviors
• D. Delayed motor development

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.

4. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?

• A. Angiotensin I
• B. Angiotensin II
• C. Angiotensin III
• D. Renin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.

5. A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?

• A. Decreased protein count
• B. Clear, straw-colored fluid
• C. Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
• D. Decreased glucose level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is typically decreased due to the increased utilization of glucose by the infecting bacteria. This metabolic change leads to a decrease in CSF glucose levels, making choice D the correct answer in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bacterial meningitis usually results in an increased protein count, cloudy appearance of the CSF due to the presence of bacteria, and absence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the CSF unless there is a traumatic tap, respectively.

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