the nurse is monitoring a client on lidocaine iv what side effect is the nurse most concerned about
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

2. The client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis, a serious side effect, the immediate action the nurse should take is to notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial because pulmonary fibrosis can lead to severe respiratory compromise and requires prompt evaluation and management by the healthcare provider. Continuing the medication (choice B) can worsen the condition, and delaying action by reducing the dose and monitoring respiratory status (choice D) may not be appropriate given the seriousness of pulmonary fibrosis. Discontinuing the medication and starting oxygen therapy (choice C) may be necessary, but the priority is to notify the healthcare provider first for further assessment and guidance.

3. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

4. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.

5. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.

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