ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?
- A. Severe headache
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Seizures
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.
2. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer potassium supplements.
- B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
- D. Decrease the dose of furosemide.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.
3. This is a branch of the left coronary arteries which supplies the LEFT ATRIUM, posterior lateral surface of the left ventricle.
- A. Right coronary artery
- B. Left circumflex artery
- C. Left anterior descending artery
- D. Posterior descending artery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Left circumflex artery. The circumflex artery is a branch of the left coronary artery that supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Choice A, the Right coronary artery, does not supply the mentioned areas. Choice C, the Left anterior descending artery, supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Choice D, the Posterior descending artery, is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle and the posterior septum.
4. Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery?
- A. Pulmonary valve
- B. Aortic valve
- C. Tricuspid valve
- D. Mitral valve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Pulmonary valve. The Pulmonary valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery after it has been ejected. The Aortic valve (choice B) prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle. The Tricuspid valve (choice C) prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium from the right ventricle. The Mitral valve (choice D) prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.
5. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?
- A. Thoracentesis
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.
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