this is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by contracting
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. What is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by contracting?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excitability is the correct term that describes the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by contracting. Excitability refers to the cell's ability to respond to stimuli and generate an action potential. Choice B, Contractility, is incorrect as it refers to the ability of cardiac cells to contract after receiving a stimulus, not the response to the impulse itself. Choice C, Rhythmicity, is incorrect as it pertains to the heart's ability to contract rhythmically without external stimulation. Choice D, Conductivity, is incorrect as it refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit an impulse from cell to cell, not the direct response to the impulse by contracting.

2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

3. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

4. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

5. Which procedure is used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with arrhythmias, typically using electrical shocks?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardioversion. Cardioversion is the procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with arrhythmias by delivering controlled electrical shocks to the heart. Choice B, Defibrillation, is incorrect because defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias by delivering an unsynchronized high-energy shock to the heart. Choice C, Ablation, is incorrect as it involves destroying abnormal tissue that causes arrhythmias, not necessarily restoring normal heart rhythm. Choice D, Angioplasty, is unrelated to heart rhythm restoration and is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels.

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