ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The nurse is giving nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain. What is the most important instruction to give to the client?
- A. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
- C. Chew the tablet and then swallow it.
- D. Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain is relieved.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The tablet should be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve completely to ensure rapid absorption. This route of administration allows the medication to be quickly absorbed into the bloodstream. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is meant to be absorbed sublingually, not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect as chewing the tablet can cause the medication to be rapidly absorbed, leading to adverse effects like a drop in blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because the client should take only one tablet every 5 minutes up to a maximum of three tablets for chest pain relief.
2. Which type of lung cancer is strongly associated with exposure to asbestos?
- A. Mesothelioma
- B. Adenocarcinoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. Small cell lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Mesothelioma. This type of lung cancer is indeed strongly associated with exposure to asbestos, affecting the lining of the lungs or abdomen. Adenocarcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma, and Small cell lung cancer are not primarily linked to asbestos exposure, making them incorrect choices for this question.
3. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the digoxin as ordered.
- C. Increase the dose of digoxin.
- D. Administer potassium supplements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.
4. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?
- A. Carotid body
- B. Aortic body
- C. Vagus nerve
- D. SA node
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.
5. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
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