Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breathe and the nurse’s rapid assessment reveals that the patient’s jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
• C. Spinal cord compression
• D. Metastatic tumor of the neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein responsible for returning blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes obstructed or compressed, often due to a tumor, such as metastasized breast cancer. SVCS results in impaired venous drainage, leading to symptoms like distended jugular veins, facial swelling, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), and upper body edema. It is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to restore blood flow and alleviate symptoms.

2. A client in the emergency department reports difficulty breathing. The nurse assesses the client’s appearance as depicted below: What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess blood pressure and pulse.
• B. Attach the client to a pulse oximeter.
• C. Have the client rate his or her pain.
• D. Facilitate urgent radiation therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. Difficulty breathing can be a sign of various conditions, including cardiac issues. Assessing blood pressure and pulse helps in determining the client's hemodynamic status and identifying any cardiovascular compromise. Option B is less crucial as attaching the client to a pulse oximeter may provide oxygen saturation levels but does not directly assess cardiac output. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the client's difficulty breathing is a more urgent concern. Option D is incorrect as urgent radiation therapy is not indicated based on the client's presentation.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. A patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Chemotherapy kills cancer cells
• B. Radiation therapy can be internal or external
• C. Radiation therapy is often external
• D. Chemotherapy is more likely to kill normal cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While chemotherapy does affect normal, healthy cells—particularly those that divide rapidly—it is not "more likely" to kill normal cells compared to cancer cells. Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and some normal cells (like those in hair follicles, the gastrointestinal tract, and bone marrow). However, its primary goal is to kill cancer cells, and its effects on normal cells are a side effect, not the main function. Therefore, the statement that chemotherapy is "more likely" to kill normal cells is inaccurate and indicates a need for further teaching.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Ability to ambulate
• C. Incision appearance
• D. Urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.

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