Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a patient with leukemia who has been experiencing severe fatigue. What is the most appropriate intervention to include in the care plan?

• A. Encouraging the patient to remain in bed
• B. Scheduling frequent rest periods
• C. Providing a high-calorie diet
• D. Administering blood transfusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with leukemia, severe fatigue is a common symptom due to factors such as anemia, the disease process itself, and the effects of treatments like chemotherapy. The most appropriate intervention is to schedule frequent rest periods to help manage fatigue while encouraging a balance between rest and activity. This approach allows the patient to conserve energy for essential tasks and prevent exhaustion, without promoting complete inactivity, which can lead to deconditioning.

2. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

3. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

• A. Disease prophylaxis
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Secondary prevention
• D. Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

• A. Cardiac function
• B. Renal function
• C. Liver function
• D. Pulmonary function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

5. Which of the following statements by the oncology nurse displays understanding about antineoplastic medications?

• A. Chemotherapy is not going to spread throughout the body
• B. Chemotherapy affects the immune system
• C. Chemotherapy is specific to cancer cells only
• D. Chemotherapy makes the patient radioactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include both cancerous and healthy cells, such as those in the bone marrow, hair follicles, and the lining of the digestive tract. Since the bone marrow produces immune cells (white blood cells), chemotherapy can weaken the immune system by reducing the body’s ability to produce these cells, making patients more susceptible to infections. This is why close monitoring and supportive measures to protect immune function are important during chemotherapy treatment.

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