a patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures what intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce th a patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures what intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. A patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce this risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Promoting bed rest to avoid injury.' In patients with multiple myeloma undergoing chemotherapy, encouraging bed rest can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, increasing the risk of fractures. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury means advising the patient on safe movement and activities to prevent fractures. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises (choice C) would be more beneficial than bed rest as it helps in maintaining bone density and strength. Ensuring adequate hydration (choice D) is essential for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bone fractures associated with multiple myeloma and chemotherapy. Choice A, 'Encouraging bed rest,' is incorrect as it may worsen the risk of fractures rather than reduce it.

2. A female patient is discharged from the hospital after having an episode of heart failure. She's prescribed daily oral doses of digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Two days later, she tells her community health nurse that she feels weak and her heart 'flutters' frequently. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the physician, report the patient's symptoms, and request a blood sample to determine the patient's potassium level. Furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, causing weakness and palpitations. Therefore, checking the potassium level is crucial in this situation. Simply telling the patient to rest more frequently won't address the underlying issue of potassium depletion. While digoxin can cause adverse effects, in this case, the symptoms are more likely related to furosemide-induced potassium loss. Instructing the patient to avoid caffeine-containing foods may be beneficial in general, but it wouldn't directly address the potassium depletion that needs urgent attention.

3. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

4. James wants to know the recommended intake for iron for his gender and age. Which of the following would provide the best answer for James?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the correct answer for James because it provides the daily intake level that meets the nutrient needs of most healthy individuals in a specific age and gender group. Choice A, EAR (Estimated Average Requirement), represents the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. Choice B, UL (Tolerable Upper Intake Level), is the maximum daily intake unlikely to cause adverse health effects. Choice D, DV (Daily Value), is a general guide used for food labeling that represents how much a nutrient in a serving of food contributes to a daily diet based on a 2000-calorie daily intake.

5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

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