Nursing Elites

1. A patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce this risk?

• A. Encouraging bed rest
• B. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury
• C. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises
• D. Ensuring adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Promoting bed rest to avoid injury.' In patients with multiple myeloma undergoing chemotherapy, encouraging bed rest can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, increasing the risk of fractures. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury means advising the patient on safe movement and activities to prevent fractures. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises (choice C) would be more beneficial than bed rest as it helps in maintaining bone density and strength. Ensuring adequate hydration (choice D) is essential for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bone fractures associated with multiple myeloma and chemotherapy. Choice A, 'Encouraging bed rest,' is incorrect as it may worsen the risk of fractures rather than reduce it.

2. During the admission assessment of a client with advanced ovarian cancer, the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypermenorrhea
• C. Abnormal bleeding
• D. Abdominal distention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abdominal distention is a common symptom in advanced ovarian cancer due to several factors, including the accumulation of ascites (fluid in the abdominal cavity) and the presence of tumors that can increase abdominal girth. As the disease progresses, the pressure from growing masses or fluid buildup can lead to noticeable swelling and discomfort in the abdomen. This symptom often prompts further evaluation and can significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. Which of the following is considered correct in dealing with a patient who has gastric cancer?

• A. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to increase fluids during meals
• B. After total gastrectomy, patient will need lots of fiber in the diet
• C. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to walk about after meals
• D. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to lie flat on bed after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total gastrectomy, where the entire stomach is removed, patients can experience dumping syndrome due to the rapid passage of food into the small intestine. This condition can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Lying flat after meals can help slow down the movement of food into the intestines, reducing the risk of dumping syndrome. It's important for patients to follow dietary recommendations and positioning strategies to manage symptoms effectively.

5. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

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