Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

2. What is the term for the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse?

• A. Excitability
• B. Contractility
• C. Rhythmicity
• D. Conductivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Excitability. Excitability is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse. Choice B, Contractility, refers to the ability of cardiac muscle to shorten forcibly. Choice C, Rhythmicity, refers to the cardiac muscle's ability to contract rhythmically. Choice D, Conductivity, refers to the ability of the heart's cells to conduct electrical impulses.

3. What test uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a test specifically designed to use sound waves to create images of the heart, allowing healthcare providers to assess both its structure and function, as well as to detect any abnormalities. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) do not primarily use sound waves for imaging the heart; therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices for this scenario.

4. What is a condition where the lung's air sacs become inflamed and fill with fluid or pus, causing cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Asthma
• D. Bronchitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumonia is the correct answer. It is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, leading to the accumulation of fluid or pus, which results in symptoms such as cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Tuberculosis (choice B) is a bacterial infection affecting the lungs but does not typically cause the same acute symptoms as described. Asthma (choice C) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, not specifically involving the air sacs. Bronchitis (choice D) is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the air sacs in the lungs, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as pneumonia.

5. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

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