ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. This test measures the amount of blood the heart pumps with each beat, often used to assess heart function.
- A. Ejection fraction
- B. Cardiac output
- C. Stroke volume
- D. End-diastolic volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ejection fraction. Ejection fraction is a measure of the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle with each beat, used to assess heart function. Choice B, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is not specific to each beat. Choice C, Stroke volume, is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction but does not specify the percentage of blood pumped out. Choice D, End-diastolic volume, is the volume of blood in the ventricle just before it contracts and does not directly measure the blood pumped with each beat.
2. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?
- A. Heart block
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.
3. What is the average cardiac output?
- A. Approximately 4 to 6 L per minute
- B. Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute
- C. Approximately 5 to 8 L per minute
- D. Approximately 3 to 7 L per minute
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute, typically ranging between 4 to 8 liters. Choices A, C, and D provide ranges that are either too narrow or outside the standard average values for cardiac output, making them incorrect.
4. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone). What is the most important dietary instruction?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid foods high in sodium.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if too much potassium is consumed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of potassium-rich foods can worsen hyperkalemia, while avoiding foods high in sodium is not the primary concern when taking spironolactone.
5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.
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