ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is caring for a client on amiodarone who complains of visual disturbances. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- B. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
- C. Advise the client to monitor their symptoms at home.
- D. Suggest the client reduce physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Visual disturbances in a client taking amiodarone can indicate amiodarone toxicity, a serious side effect. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly is essential for further assessment and management. Reassuring the client that this is a common side effect (choice B) is incorrect as visual disturbances should not be dismissed without evaluation. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms at home (choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (choice D) is unrelated to addressing visual disturbances caused by amiodarone.
2. The client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
- D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on a beta blocker presents with a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure, which is already low in this case. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) would exacerbate the hypotension. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would be inappropriate and unsafe given the low blood pressure. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) could lead to a delay in necessary intervention. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.
3. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Stroke
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.
4. Which condition is characterized by a chronic cough that produces mucus, often caused by long-term exposure to irritants?
- A. Chronic bronchitis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Asthma
- D. Sinusitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by a long-term cough with mucus production, often caused by smoking or prolonged exposure to irritants. Tuberculosis (choice B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but does not usually present with a chronic cough as the main symptom. Asthma (choice C) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to wheezing and shortness of breath, but it does not typically cause chronic mucus production. Sinusitis (choice D) is inflammation of the sinuses and presents with symptoms like facial pain, nasal congestion, and post-nasal drip, but not specifically a chronic cough with mucus production.
5. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer a potassium supplement.
- C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
- D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.
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