Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

2. What is the procedure where a device is used to shock the heart back into a normal rhythm during a life-threatening arrhythmia?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Cardioversion
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Ablation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Defibrillation. Defibrillation is the procedure of using a device to deliver an electric shock to the heart during life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia to restore a normal rhythm. Choice B, Cardioversion, is similar but is typically used for less severe arrhythmias. Choice C, Echocardiogram, is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. Choice D, Ablation, is a procedure to treat certain types of arrhythmias by scarring or destroying tissue that triggers abnormal electrical signals.

3. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

• A. Heart block
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

4. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. This is a branch of the left coronary arteries which supplies the LEFT ATRIUM, posterior lateral surface of the left ventricle.

• A. Right coronary artery
• B. Left circumflex artery
• C. Left anterior descending artery
• D. Posterior descending artery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Left circumflex artery. The circumflex artery is a branch of the left coronary artery that supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Choice A, the Right coronary artery, does not supply the mentioned areas. Choice C, the Left anterior descending artery, supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Choice D, the Posterior descending artery, is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle and the posterior septum.

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