ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.
2. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.
3. During which process does coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium occur during diastole, when coronary vascular resistance is reduced?
- A. Coronary perfusion pressure
- B. Coronary vascular resistance
- C. Diastolic filling
- D. Ventricular ejection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary perfusion pressure. Coronary perfusion pressure refers to the process of coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium during diastole when coronary vascular resistance is reduced. This process ensures that the myocardium receives sufficient oxygen and nutrients for proper functioning. Choice B, Coronary vascular resistance, is the opposite of what is described in the question. During coronary perfusion, resistance is reduced to enhance blood flow. Choices C and D, Diastolic filling and Ventricular ejection, do not directly relate to the process of coronary artery blood flow during diastole.
4. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Reassure the client that the cough is a common side effect and is usually not serious.
- B. Instruct the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider as it may require discontinuation of the medication.
- C. Advise the client to use a humidifier at night to relieve the cough.
- D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.
5. What is the term for the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse?
- A. Excitability
- B. Contractility
- C. Rhythmicity
- D. Conductivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Excitability. Excitability is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse. Choice B, Contractility, refers to the ability of cardiac muscle to shorten forcibly. Choice C, Rhythmicity, refers to the cardiac muscle's ability to contract rhythmically. Choice D, Conductivity, refers to the ability of the heart's cells to conduct electrical impulses.
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