Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

2. A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patient’s family and friends?

• A. Your family should gather at the bedside in case there is a negative outcome.
• B. Ensure she abstains from eating any food 24 hours before the procedure.
• C. Wear a hospital gown when entering the patient's room.
• D. Avoid visiting if you've had a recent infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid visiting if you've had a recent infection.' Before a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation, it is essential for visitors to refrain from visiting if they have had a recent illness or vaccination to minimize the risk of infection to the patient. Choice A is incorrect because emphasizing a negative outcome is not beneficial to the patient or their family. Choice B is incorrect as it is not necessary to abstain from food for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Choice C is irrelevant to the situation as wearing a hospital gown is not the key information for family and friends to be aware of.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

• A. Labyrinthitis
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Decreased bone density
• D. Hypercoagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Fatigue
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mouth sores

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.

5. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

• A. Disease prophylaxis
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Secondary prevention
• D. Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.

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