Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Mandy is teaching a client about the side effects of radiation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Radiation therapy is painless.
• B. You may experience hair loss.
• C. Fatigue is a common side effect.
• D. You may experience nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fatigue is one of the most frequent and profound side effects of radiation therapy. It often occurs because radiation can damage both cancerous and healthy cells, and the body requires energy to repair the damage caused by the treatment. Fatigue from radiation can be cumulative, meaning it may worsen as treatments progress, and can significantly affect the client’s daily activities, requiring the nurse to educate the client on energy conservation techniques.

2. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

3. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?

• A. Apoptosis
• B. Contact inhibition
• C. Stable cells
• D. Labile cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.

4. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?

• A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice, which is often associated with liver disease. Liver function tests (LFTs) help in evaluating liver health and function. A complete blood count (CBC) primarily assesses red and white blood cells and platelets, not directly related to jaundice. Platelet count specifically measures platelets in the blood and is unrelated to the yellow skin observed in this patient. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine tests focus on kidney function, not typically associated with yellow skin, making them less relevant in this context.

5. The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?

• A. Headache
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Constipation
• D. Electrocardiographic changes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Electrocardiographic changes. In clients with metastatic prostate cancer, hypercalcemia can lead to various signs and symptoms. Electrocardiographic changes are considered a late sign of hypercalcemia, indicating severe electrolyte imbalance. Headache (choice A), dysphagia (choice B), and constipation (choice C) are earlier signs of hypercalcemia and may precede the development of more severe symptoms like electrocardiographic changes.

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