ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. Nurse Mandy is teaching a client about the side effects of radiation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Radiation therapy is painless.
- B. You may experience hair loss.
- C. Fatigue is a common side effect.
- D. You may experience nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fatigue is one of the most frequent and profound side effects of radiation therapy. It often occurs because radiation can damage both cancerous and healthy cells, and the body requires energy to repair the damage caused by the treatment. Fatigue from radiation can be cumulative, meaning it may worsen as treatments progress, and can significantly affect the client’s daily activities, requiring the nurse to educate the client on energy conservation techniques.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Loratadine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. The combination of Warfarin, an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding complications. Clients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options such as acetaminophen. Diphenhydramine and loratadine are antihistamines and are generally safe to use with Warfarin as they do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
- A. Contact precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.
4. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?
- A. Identify solutions prior to the negotiation.
- B. Focus on how to resolve the conflict.
- C. Attempt to understand both sides of the issue.
- D. Avoid personalizing the conflict.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.
5. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
- A. 440
- B. 400
- C. 410
- D. 450
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.
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