Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

2. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

3. A client in the oncology clinic reports her family is frustrated at her ongoing fatigue 4 months after radiation therapy for breast cancer. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Are you getting adequate rest and sleep each day?
• B. It is normal to be fatigued even for months afterward.
• C. This is not normal and I’ll let the primary health care provider know.
• D. Try adding more vitamins B and C to your diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Radiation-induced fatigue can last for months; it’s important to normalize this for the client.

4. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

5. During a health promotion program on testicular cancer, a community health nurse finds that more information is necessary if a community member says which of the following is a sign of testicular cancer?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Back pain
• C. Painless testicular swelling
• D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Alopecia.' Alopecia is not a sign of testicular cancer; it can occur due to chemotherapy. Back pain (choice B) is not typically associated with testicular cancer. Painless testicular swelling (choice C) and a heavy sensation in the scrotum (choice D) can be actual signs of testicular cancer, so they do not require further information.

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