Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

2. A client with a history of prostate cancer is in the clinic and reports new onset of severe low back pain. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client’s gait and balance.
• B. Ask the client about any changes in urinary symptoms.
• C. Document the report thoroughly.
• D. Inquire about the client’s recent activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client’s gait and balance. Severe low back pain in a client with a history of prostate cancer may indicate spinal cord compression, a serious complication. Assessing gait and balance can help determine if there is any spinal cord involvement, which requires immediate medical attention. Asking about changes in urinary symptoms (choice B) is important to assess for possible urinary obstruction, but assessing gait and balance takes precedence due to the risk of spinal cord compression. Documenting the report thoroughly (choice C) is essential but not the most immediate action needed. Inquiring about recent activities (choice D) is not as critical as assessing for spinal cord involvement.

3. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

• A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
• B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
• C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
• D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

4. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?

• A. Interrupted sleep pattern
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Epistaxis (nose bleed)
• D. Increased weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.

5. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

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