ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
- A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
- B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
- C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
- D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.
2. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic.
- B. Administer an antimetabolite.
- C. Administer a tumor antibiotic.
- D. Administer an anticoagulant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically used to prevent or treat these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering an antimetabolite, a tumor antibiotic, or an anticoagulant would not directly address the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, which are nausea and vomiting.
3. A patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is undergoing chemotherapy and develops neutropenia. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient?
- A. Administering antipyretics
- B. Restricting visitors
- C. Maintaining a sterile environment
- D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection in neutropenic patients.
4. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?
- A. Altered red blood cell production
- B. Altered production of lymph nodes
- C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
- D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that involves the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, which are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. In multiple myeloma, these abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow, where they interfere with the production of normal blood cells and lead to the formation of tumors in the bones. This can cause bone pain, fractures, anemia, and impaired immune function. The excessive production of abnormal antibodies can also result in kidney damage and other systemic complications.
5. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Arm edema
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. Mental status changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
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