Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

2. Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?

• A. Peau d'orange
• B. Painless breast mass
• C. Alopecia
• D. Breast enlargement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

4. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which assessment finding indicates that the colostomy is beginning to function?

• A. The passage of flatus
• B. Absent bowel sounds
• C. The client’s ability to tolerate food
• D. Bloody drainage from the colostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The passage of flatus (gas) from the colostomy is an early sign that the bowel is beginning to function after surgery. This indicates that peristalsis, or the movement of the intestines, has resumed and that the digestive system is actively moving gas and eventually stool through the bowel and out of the colostomy. It’s a positive sign that the bowel is recovering from the surgery and starting to work as intended.

5. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased uric acid level
• B. Increased serum potassium level
• C. Increased serum sodium level
• D. Increased fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

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