Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

2. A client has been prescribed epoetin alfa for anemia related to chemotherapy. What lab value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin level.
• B. Hematocrit level.
• C. White blood cell count.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia, particularly anemia related to chemotherapy or chronic kidney disease. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which increases the hemoglobin level. Monitoring hemoglobin is the best way to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa, as an increase in hemoglobin indicates that the body is producing more red blood cells and the anemia is improving.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

• A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
• B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
• D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

• A. Administering iron supplements
• B. Administering blood transfusions
• C. Providing a high-iron diet
• D. Administering erythropoietin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

5. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

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