the nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a client who has returned from the operating room following an abdominal perineal resection and notes ser
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. The nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a client who has returned from the operating room following an abdominal perineal resection and notes serosanguineous drainage from the wound. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate nursing intervention for serosanguineous drainage from the wound is to change the dressing as prescribed. This helps in maintaining wound cleanliness, preventing infection, and promoting proper wound healing. Clamping the Penrose drain (Choice A) is not indicated as the drainage is from the wound itself, not the drain. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary if there are signs of infection or other concerning issues, but changing the dressing should be done first. Removing and replacing the perineal packing (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider after assessing the wound.

2. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

5. A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is receiving monoclonal antibody therapy. What is the priority assessment during the infusion of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vital signs. Monitoring vital signs is crucial during the infusion of monoclonal antibody therapy as there is a risk of infusion reactions such as fevers, chills, hypotension, and tachycardia. Assessing vital signs allows for early detection of any adverse reactions, enabling prompt intervention. Skin reactions (choice B), respiratory status (choice C), and renal function (choice D) are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority during the infusion of monoclonal antibody therapy.

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