Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

2. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?

• A. Interrupted sleep pattern
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Epistaxis (nose bleed)
• D. Increased weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

• A. Labyrinthitis
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Decreased bone density
• D. Hypercoagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

5. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

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