Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse to a patient under radiation therapy?

• A. Brachytherapy can be performed by a pregnant nurse.
• B. Teletherapy makes the patient radioactive.
• C. Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.
• D. Teletherapy requires proper disposal of feces since it can be a source of radiation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.' Brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources inside or next to the area requiring treatment. This differs from teletherapy, which is external radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect as pregnant individuals should avoid exposure to radiation. Choice B is incorrect because teletherapy does not make the patient radioactive; the radiation source is external. Choice D is incorrect as feces is not a significant source of radiation during teletherapy.

2. The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time?

• A. At the onset of menstruation
• B. Every month during ovulation
• C. Weekly at the same time of day
• D. 1 week after menstruation begins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The optimal time for performing a breast self-examination (BSE) is about one week after menstruation begins, as this is when the breasts are least likely to be swollen, tender, or affected by hormonal changes. Hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause temporary changes in breast tissue, such as swelling, lumpiness, or tenderness, which may make it more difficult to detect any unusual lumps or changes. Conducting the examination during this period ensures that the breasts are in their natural state, making it easier to notice any abnormalities.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

• A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
• B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
• D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

4. A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a dose of allopurinol.
• B. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
• C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to gently inquire about advance directives. Superior vena cava syndrome is often a late-stage manifestation, indicating a serious condition. Discussing advance directives with the client is crucial to ensure their wishes are known in case of deterioration. Administering allopurinol (Choice A) is not indicated for superior vena cava syndrome. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level (Choice B) is not the priority when managing this syndrome. Emergency surgery (Choice D) is not typically the initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome.

5. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

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