Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

2. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

3. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability in personnel management involves being responsible for one's actions and decisions. Part of being accountable includes listening to and addressing soldiers' suggestions and complaints. This helps in fostering a positive work environment and improving communication within the team. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while personal/professional development, individual training, and military appearance/physical condition are important aspects of personnel management, they do not directly relate to the specific task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.

5. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Forward surgical team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This specialized team is designed to provide immediate surgical care close to the frontline. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the specific composition of personnel described in the question.

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