patients with hiatal hernia may develop anemia because
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

2. The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this scenario. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics to prevent its spread and potential complications. While warm moist packs and elevation can be beneficial as adjunct measures, they are not the initial priority. Teaching about skin and foot care is important, but it can be addressed after stabilizing the acute condition with antibiotics.

3. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.

4. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.

5. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. Warming the formula to room temperature is essential to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspirating and measuring the gastric aspirate is not a recommended nursing action for monitoring enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, as it can introduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the feeding tube. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.

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