Nursing Elites

1. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to

• A. check all stools for occult blood
• B. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day
• C. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours
• D. check the temperature every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.

2. The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?

• A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
• B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
• C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
• D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.

3. The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a 'shift to the left.' Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?

• A. Cool extremities
• B. Pallor and weakness
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Low oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. When a CBC shows a 'shift to the left,' it indicates elevated levels of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands), which is a sign of infection. In response to the infection, the body increases its temperature as part of the immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cool extremities, pallor and weakness, and low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with a 'shift to the left' in a CBC; they are more indicative of other conditions or issues.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

5. Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?

• A. A patient with chronic heart failure
• B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
• C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
• D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.

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