an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non hodgkins lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18000l during chemotherapy is to
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.

2. A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient’s clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered.

3. The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.

4. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

5. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the health care provider about this.

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