a patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850l while receiving outpatient chemotherapy which action by the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.

2. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.

3. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.

4. Which assessment finding should the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia communicate immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life-threatening and requires immediate action. While a low platelet count (choice A) is concerning in thrombocytopenia, it does not require immediate communication unless accompanied by active bleeding or other critical symptoms. Purpura on the oral mucosa (choice C) and large bruises on the patient's back (choice D) are important findings in thrombocytopenia but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like a possible cerebral hemorrhage.

5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

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