Nursing Elites

1. A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
• B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
• C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
• D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.

2. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient post coronary artery bypass graft who rates his/her pain as an 8 out of 10 on the subjective pain scale. Should the nurse choose to administer morphine sulfate intravenously as it has benefits to cardiac patients (select one that does not apply)?

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply
• B. Decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption
• C. Decreasing heart rate
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate, a potent opioid analgesic, can cause vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Choice A is incorrect as morphine can decrease myocardial oxygen consumption by reducing the workload of the heart. Choice B is incorrect as morphine can decrease heart rate as a side effect. Choice C is incorrect as morphine typically decreases blood pressure rather than increasing it.

4. A 62-year-old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory test findings to include

• A. an RBC count of 4,500,000/μL.
• B. a hematocrit (Hct) value of 38%.
• C. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices.
• D. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In chronic anemia, the hematocrit (Hct) value is a crucial indicator of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit value of 38% indicates a lower than normal level of red blood cells, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of fatigue and palpitations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low RBC count, normal RBC indices, and a hemoglobin level of 8.6 g/dL do not specifically address the decreased red blood cell mass associated with chronic anemia.

5. Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection
• B. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions
• C. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
• D. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.

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