ATI RN
Fluid and Electrolytes ATI
1. The nurse assessing skin turgor in an elderly patient should remember that:
- A. Overhydration causes the skin to tent.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Normal skin turgor is dry and firm. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration does not cause the skin to tent; it is dehydration that leads to tenting. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration, not overhydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice D is incorrect because normal skin turgor is dry and firm, not moist and boggy.
2. . A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability?
- A. The kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH.
- B. The kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes
- C. The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.
- D. The kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
3. A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. . Amount of pressure in fluid container
- B. Date of catheter tubing change
- C. Percent of heparin in infusion container
- D. . Presence of an ulnar pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
- A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
- B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
- C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
- D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.
5. You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperchloremia
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
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