a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea the clients arterial blood gas values are ph 728 pao2 98 mm hg paco2 45 mm hg an
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. What would be the best initial nursing action prior to inserting an IV?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action prior to inserting an IV is to verify the order for IV therapy. This step ensures that the IV insertion is appropriate and necessary based on the physician's orders. Instructing the patient to wash their hands (Choice A) is important for infection control but not the immediate priority before IV insertion. While preparing the IV insertion site with povidone iodine (Choice B) and identifying a suitable vein (Choice D) are crucial steps in the process, confirming the order for IV therapy (Choice C) takes precedence to ensure the correct intervention is being performed.

3. You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.34, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

Similar Questions

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