ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation
1. You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?
- A. Air emboli
- B. Phlebitis
- C. Infiltration
- D. Fluid overload
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
2. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems?
- A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Cool, clammy skin
- D. Acute flank pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: To assess a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. Diminished deep tendon reflexes may indicate high serum magnesium levels, as hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular effects. Tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and acute flank pain are not typically associated with high magnesium levels and are not priority assessments in this situation.
3. While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?
- A. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning
- B. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
- C. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells
- D. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypokalemia due to the loss of gastric contents rich in potassium. Therefore, a client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning is at risk for hypokalemia. Option B is incorrect because ACE inhibitors may lead to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Option C is incorrect as receiving packed red blood cells can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in the blood product. Option D is incorrect because a serum pH level of 7.33 indicates acidosis, which is not directly associated with hypokalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenous push
- B. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W
- C. Mechanical ventilation
- D. Indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
5. You are working on a burns unit, and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hypermagnesemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypovolemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Third spacing refers to the loss of fluid from the intravascular space into the interstitial or third space, leading to a decrease in circulating blood volume. This condition results in hypovolemia, which is characterized by decreased blood volume. Metabolic alkalosis, hypermagnesemia, and hypercalcemia are not directly associated with third spacing. Metabolic alkalosis is an acid-base imbalance, hypermagnesemia is an excess of magnesium in the blood, and hypercalcemia is an excess of calcium in the blood, none of which are the primary concerns in cases of third spacing.
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