ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Final Exam
1. The most rapid prenatal changes take place in the period of the __________.
- A. zygote
- B. blastocyst
- C. embryo
- D. fetus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: embryo. The most rapid prenatal changes occur during the embryo stage, which spans from approximately 2 to 8 weeks after conception. This period is crucial as major organs and systems of the body develop rapidly, laying the foundation for future growth and development. The zygote stage is the initial single-celled entity formed by the union of sperm and egg, while the blastocyst stage involves the cluster of cells resulting from the zygote dividing and growing. The fetus stage follows the embryo stage and focuses on refining and growing existing structures rather than rapid development. Therefore, the embryo stage is where the most significant and rapid changes take place in prenatal development.
2. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
3. __________ love is strong at the beginning of a relationship.
- A. Compassionate
- B. Affectionate
- C. Passionate
- D. Companionate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Passionate love is characterized by intense emotions and physical attraction, which are common in the early stages of relationships. Compassionate love involves deep affection, but it develops over time based on mutual respect, trust, and intimacy. Affectionate love is warm and tender, but it may not necessarily have the intense emotions associated with passionate love. Companionate love is based on friendship, respect, and affection, but it may lack the intense emotions and physical attraction that characterize passionate love.
4. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?
- A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
- B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
- C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
- D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.
5. The student nurse is participating in colorectal cancer-screening program. Which patient has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer?
- A. Janice, a 45 y.o. with a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis
- B. George, a 50 y.o. whose father died of colon cancer
- C. Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet
- D. Sissy, a 72 y.o. with a history of breast cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet, has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer.
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